Test 120 domande esame ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot

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120 domande in 120 minuti atpl

1 - At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies? 50N 80N 30N 10N

2 - During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure? It will remain the same It will decrease It is not possible to give a definitive answer It will increase

3 - Cabin pressure is controlled by: The Cabin Air Mass Flow Control Inlet Valve(s). Delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow. The cabin air re-circulation system. Controlling The Flow Of Air Into The Cabin With Constant Outflow.

4 - The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: An emergency Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight Transponder malfunction Radio communication failure

5 - Magnetic compass errors are: About north change, depending on the bank angle and magnetic heading. Parallax errors due to compass rose oscillations. Due to Schüler oscillations. Due to the lateral gusts which occur when the airplane is heading eastward or westward.

6 - The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually: + or - 40° of the runway centre-line + or - 30° of the runway centre-line + or - 60° of the runway centre-line + or - 50° of the runway centre-line

7 - Before takeoff, a briefing: Is not necessary when departing from home base because this is routine Must be done systematically in order to refresh the memory of the crew members and to co- ordinate actions Is not necessary if the crew members know each other Is not required unless both crew members agree it is essential

8 - ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot: Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345 Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345 Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345 Descending to 80, Fastair 345

9 - Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter? The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns 2 and 4

10 - Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'Reduce your rate of speech'? Repeat Words twice Say again Speak slower

11 - If individual masses are used, the mass of an aircraft must be determined prior to initial entry into service and thereafter Only if major modifications have taken place. At regular annual intervals. At intervals of 9 years. At intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.

12 - The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations. A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations. A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non- commercial operations. Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

13 - Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and: The runway is very smooth and clean The runway is very smooth and dirty The tyre treads show minor cuts The runway has a rough surface

14 - The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the: Centre of pressure Centre of gravity Stagnation point Point of lowest pressure

15 - The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind? 203 NM 174 NM 193 NM 188 NM

16 - Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the: Volume Of Fuel And Volume Of Air Entering The Carburettor. Mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder. Mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor Volume Of Fuel And Volume Of Air Entering The Cylinder.

17 - What does the term 'way point' mean: A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport

18 - Parallax error is: Due to temperature effect A reading error Due to the effect of aircraft accelerations Due to pressure effect

19 - The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of the landing is: Knowledge based behaviour Skill and/or rule based behaviour Automated behaviour Pressure based behaviour

20 - In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within ........ of the published approach track. +/-10° +/-2.5° +/-5° +/-2°

21 - What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m? 8 m (27') 15 m (50') 64 m (210') 32 m (105')

22 - AuthorityThe final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft is the: ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace Pilot-in-command Operator Aircraft owner

23 - Check the following statements:1. The first information received determines how subsequent information will be evaluated.2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory information may not get the attention it really needs.3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is limiting the flow of information to the central decision maker (CNS). 1and 3 are correct 1, 2 and 3 are correct 2 and 3 are correct 1 and 2 are correct

24 - The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTCThe flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at: 1725 UTC 1745 UTC 1715 UTC 1755 UTC

25 - The (subsonic) static pressure: Decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases Increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases Is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero Is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure

26 - During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is: The middle marker. The FAF. The start final descent point (glide slope intersection). The outer marker (OM).

27 - The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that These Aeroplanes Often Consume Too Much Fuel On Short Haul Flights. The procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time In that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way The lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum

28 - Mach buffet occurs: At the Mach Number at which shockwave induced boundary layer separation occurs. When the stalling angle of attack is exceeded. Directly after exceeding Mcrit. When the Mach Number has increased to Mcrit.

29 - If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: Read zero Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage Over-read Under-read

30 - The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the: Strength of the headwind. Aircraft's weight. Amount of the lift off speed. Depth of the standing water on the runway.

31 - Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted? Aircraft identification, position, time, level Aircraft identification, position, level Aircraft identification, position, time Aircraft identification, position, next position

32 - Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 dB can result in: Presbycusis (effects of aging) Conductive hearing loss A ruptured ear drum Noise induced hearing loss

33 - Separation - VMC and own separationThe 'Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions' may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft.The conditions are: Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight Airspace Class C, D and E, VMC Airspace Class C, D, VMC Airspace Class C, VMC, hours of daylight

34 - When air has passed through a shock wave the local speed of sound is: Not affected Decreased Increased Decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again

35 - Scanning at night should be performed by: Slight eye movements to the side of the object Avoiding food containing Vitamin A Concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the fovea) Scanning with one eye open

36 - Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/s) 333 km 150 km 1333 km 666 km

37 - In accordance with EASA-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than: 200 ft 300 ft 250 ft 350 ft

38 - The Coriolis effect in spatial disorientation occurs as a result of: Simultaneous stimulation of several semicircular canals Absence of semicircular canal stimulation On stimulating the cochlea intensely Stimulation of the saccule and the utricle (otoliths) of the inner ear

39 - What does the abbreviation 'H24' mean? Sunrise to sunset Continuous day and night service No specific working hours Sunset to sunrise

40 - A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is: A flight regularity message. A flight security message. A flight safety message. An urgency message.

41 - You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL With a PPL plus CPL theory With a PPL plus flight instructor rating With a valid licence plus flight instructor rating With a CPL

42 - The speed of sound is affected by the: Temperature of the air. Humidity of the air. Pressure of the air. Density of the air.

43 - In order to perceive colour vision, it is necessary:-1: for there to be sufficient amount of light (ambient luminosity)-2: at night to look at the point to be observed at an angle of 15°-3: to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the light-4: to avoid white light 1 3 2,4 1,2,3

44 - In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is: Based on pressure altitudes The minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle domain The height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust The height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed

45 - You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude? 15630' 16370' 15090' 16910'

46 - Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct: XY-BC X-BC BC ABC

47 - Given:AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500' margin above the following two levels: FL30 or 100' AGL 3000' AMSL or 1500' AGL FL30 or 1500' AGL 3000' AMSL or 1000' AGL

48 - In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing 'NAT' traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should: Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 90 NM from its assigned route or track. Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 60 NM from its assigned route or track. Descend below FL275. Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 30 NM from its assigned route or track.

49 - Isogonic lines connect positions that have: 0° variation The same elevation The same variation The same angle of magnetic dip

50 - The 'short period mode' is an: Oscillation about the lateral axis Unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot Oscillation about the longitudinal axis Oscillation about the vertical axis

51 - The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: 5 minutes. 3 minutes. 10 minutes. 6 minutes.

52 - Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc? Correct Acknowledge Confirm Verify

53 - In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are Flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage allowance. Flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage allowance. Flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an allowance for hand baggage. Flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage.

54 - According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to: MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway

55 - Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere? Cirrostratus Cumulonimbus Altostratus Altocumulus

56 - Spoiler deflection causes: An increase in drag and decrease in lift Decrease in lift and drag An increase in lift only An increase in lift and drag

57 - The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: 1. idle wheel speed (measured)2. braked wheel speed (measured)3. brake temperature (measured)4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate5. tire pressur The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 4. 1, 3. 2, 4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

58 - The FMS Overfly function consists in: Manually selecting a flight plan waypoint to fly over when sequencing it instead of flying by at the transition. Manually selecting a flight plan waypoint to hold over for a selected time. Selecting the secondary flight plan making it active to fly over the legs. Manually selecting a flight plan to fly over each of the waypoints at the transitions along the route.

59 - What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and information from unaffected signals It causes multipath propagation It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme

60 - The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT is carried out at the: Intake of the high pressure chamber. Outlet of the high pressure stage of the turbine. Inlet of the combustion chamber. Outlet of the combustion chamber.

61 - The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? 1009 hPa Less than 1009 hPa More than 1009 hPa It is not possible to give a definitive answer

62 - ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing: 40 NM 30 NM 60 NM 50 NM

63 - The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that: The pilot is able to modify the navigation database in the FMC between two updates. The navigation database of the FMC is valid for one year. The navigation database is read only to the pilot. Timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known position

64 - When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall: Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it. Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar. Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR. Not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.

65 - The priority of the pilot's message 'request QDM' is: Less than 'request climb to flight level...' Greater than 'turn left heading...' Same as 'latest QNH 1018'. Less than 'descend to flight level...'

66 - What does the abbreviation 'RVR' mean: Runway visibility report Radar vectors requested Recleared via route... Runway visual range

67 - Aircraft told to contact Stephenville Radar on 132.010. Response if unable to comply: Negative channel 132.010 Negative frequency 132.008 Negative 8 point 3 3 Negative on 132.010

68 - General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delayIn the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original Estimated off-block time by 30 minutes. Estimated off-block time by 60 minutes. Estimated departure time by 30 minutes. Estimated departure time by 60 minutes.

69 - The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic pressure q are: (I) kg / m, (II) N / m2. (I) N / m3, (II) kg / m2. (I) N / m, (II) kg. (I) N / m2, (II) N / m2.

70 - On the display of a TCAS II (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a proximate traffic is represented by: A white or cyan solid lozenge. An amber solid circle. A red full square. A white or cyan empty lozenge.

71 - In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by: 3 minutes or more. 2 minutes or more. 5 minutes or more. 10 minutes or more.

72 - In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag: A lower speed requires a higher thrust. The aeroplane cannot be controlled manually. A higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag, requires a higher thrust. The aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.

73 - The indicated range from a DME station is: 0 when passing overhead the station. Ground range. Ground range only if the beacon is co-located with VOR. Slant range.

74 - Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (all other relevant factors constant) Tapered Rectangular Circular Elliptical

75 - To be as accurate as possible, an anemometer must be calibrated according to the following formula: Bernoulli, taking into account the air compressibility. Saint-Venant, considering the air as an uncompressible fluid. Saint-Venant, taking into account the air compressibility. Bernoulli, considering the air as an uncompressible fluid.

76 - In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level? 245 NM 204 NM 183 NM 352

77 - The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet 1 - throughout the operating range of the engine 2 - for ground starts 3 - for accelerations 4 - for in-flight relights 5 - during turbulence in flight 6 - in heavy precipitation or in icing conditions The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 4, 5, 6 1, 2, 3, 6 2, 3, 2004 3 And 6 Only

78 - The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details: Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required

79 - From the following list:1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons: 1,2 and 5 only 3,4 and 5 only 1,2 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only

80 - During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The reserve fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip. 33.0 US gallons/hour 30.3 US gallons/hour 21.3 US gallons/hour 37.9 US gallons/hour

81 - VMO: Is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity Should be chosen in between VC and VD Should not be less than VD Should not be greater than VC

82 - Which of the following lists the order of available selections on the Mode Selector switches of a 737-400 Inertial Reference System? 1153 1203 After flying 150 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 2 MIN behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'? 1153 1203 1157 1206

83 - A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still air distance? 414 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) 499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) 511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) 406 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)

84 - The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds: A torque motor on the sensitive axis A nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring 2 torque motors arranged horizontally A levelling erection torque motor

85 - At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur? Late evening. At sunset. Shortly after midnight. Shortly after sunrise.

86 - Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes: Form part of personality and that, as a result, they cannot be changed in an adult Are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the actions associated with them Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or a situation Are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality

87 - On a un-swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the aerodynamic centre: Shifts aft by about 10%. Remains unchanged. Shifts from 25% to about 50% of the aerofoil chord. Slightly shifts forward.

88 - OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless: He has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days. He has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-off and landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days. He has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30 days He has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.

89 - In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a: Procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operational Continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites Continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising above the horizon Geometric height above ground

90 - Urgency is defined as: A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

91 - The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass Differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass. Are the same value. Differ by the mass of usable fuel. Differ by the value of the traffic load mass.

92 - Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: 'Pass me the following information...': Request Say again Report Check

93 - In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the: Signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials BFO switch must be selected to 'ON' Mode selector should be switched to 'loop' Uses pulse technique to determine the radial.

94 - If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (CG) on the aircraft? It will cause the CG to move aft. The CG location will change, but the direction cannot be told from the information given. It will cause the CG to move forward. It will not affect the CG location.

95 - . The Traffic Load is defined as: The total mass of passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel The total mass of flight crew, passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel The total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo, including any non revenue load The total mass of crew and passengers excluding any baggage or cargo

96 - An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATC flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with: EDDM0215 EDDM2H15 In the ATC flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with: EDDM0215 EDDM2H15 EDDM AT 0215 EDDM1415

97 - The bending loads on a cantilever wing due to lift are carried by the:1. upper skin surface.2. lower skin surface.3. wing root fairing.4. spar or spars.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3, 2004. 2, 3. 3, 4 1, 2, 4.

98 - For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than: 2 hours 10 minutes 1 hour 30 minutes

99 - The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus Traffic load, non-revenue load and crew standard mass. Unuseable fuel and crew standard mass. Traffic load Traffic load and potable water.

100 - What does "SQUAWK IDENT" mean? Operate the SSR transponder "special position identification" feature. Select the SSR transponder mode to "ALT". State the aircraft call sign three times. Select the SSR transponder code to 7000.

101 - The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is: 1059 KT 661 KT 332 KT 644 KT

102 - Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate. Statement 2 only Neither statement Statement 1 only Both statements

103 - A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because: The larger water droplets will give good echoes Enables the aircraft to detect clear air turbulence Static interference is minimised Greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets

104 - The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called: Homeostasis Poikilothermy Homeothermy Heterostasis

105 - Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be 'Unreliable': Runway covered with wet snow and slush Runway conditions normal Runway covered with dry snow Runway covered with ice

106 - What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received: Information Golf We have the ATIS Golf We have the Information Weather Golf received

107 - Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities Can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia May improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of hypoxia are much better to be identified Will have no effect at all Will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia

108 - Given:Magnetic track = 210°, Magnetic HDG = 215°, VAR = 15°E,TAS = 360 kt,Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN. Calculate the true W/V? 195°/50 kt 265°/50 kt 300°/30 kt 235°/50 kt

109 - What is a stressor? All external stimulation are stressors since they modify the internal equilibrium An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as being stressful The adaptation response of the individual to his environment A psychological problem developed in a situation of danger

110 - Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aircraft has done half the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary? Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because it is allowed to calculate without reserve fuel. Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been used completely. Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on his own responsibility. Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient.

111 - Given:Maximum structural take-off mass: 7400 kg Maximum structural landing mass: 7400 kg Zero Fuel Mass: 5990 kgTaxi Fuel: 15 kg Contingency Fuel: 110 kg Alternate Fuel: 275 kg Final Reserve Fuel: 250 kg Trip Fuel: 760 kgThe expected Landing Mass at destination will be: 7385 kg 7400 kg 6625 kg 7135 kg

112 - What are the standard masses used for crew? 88 kgs for flight crew, 76 kgs cabin crew, not including baggage 85 kgs for flight crew, 75 kgs cabin crew, not including hand baggage 88 kgs for flight crew, 76 kgs cabin crew, including baggage. 85 kgs for flight crew, 75 kgs cabin crew, including hand baggage

113 - Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a missed approach: Overshooting Going around Pulling up Will make another approach

114 - In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall: Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight Inform ATC after departure Insert under item 18 of the flight plan 'transponder unserviceable' Inform FIS for relay to AIS

115 - Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system? 1750 - 1950 kHz 90 - 110 kHz 978 - 1213 MHz 10.2 - 13.6 kHz

116 - How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth? Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day) Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day) 365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position fix

117 - Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: 'Consider that transmission as not sent': Cancel my last message Disregard My last transmission is cancelled Forget it

118 - Your aircraft and an intruding traffic are both TCAS II equipped. Your TCAS can generate: Coordinated traffic advisories. Coordinated and complementary resolution advisories. Traffic advisories coordinated with the ATC instructions. Resolution advisories coordinated with the ATC instructions.

119 - On a large transport aeroplane, the auto-slat system: Extends (part of) the slats automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded. Assist The Ailerons. Ensures That The (part Of) Slats Are Always Extended When The Ground/flight System Is In The "ground" Position. Provides For Automatic Slat Retraction After Take-off.

120 - An aircraft is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ? The Operator. The commander of the aircraft. The aircraft manufacturer or supplier. The appropriate Aviation Authority.

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