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1 - Differential aileron deflection is used to... Keep the adverse yaw low Avoid a stall at low angles of attack Increase the rate of descent Reduce wake turbulence.

2 - (For this question, please use annex PFP-061) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles? (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 22

C B A D

3 - In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An engine fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken? Turn off the heat Shut down the engine Use the fire extinguisher Turn off the master switch

4 - Which Q-code is used for the true bearing to the station? QDR QDM QTE QUJ

5 - What kind of reduction in visibility is not very sensitive to changes in temperature? Patches of fog (BCFG) Radiation fog (FG) Mist (BR)

6 - Heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear close to the ground can be expected... During cold, clear nights with the formation of radiation fog Near the rainfall areas of heavy showers or thunderstorms During approach to an airfield at the coast with a strong sea breeze During warm summer days with high, flatted Cu clouds.

7 - Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions? No-fly zone Restricted area Prohibited area Dangerous area

8 - What mass equals 102 litres of Avgas 100LL? 142 lbs 74 lbs 142 kg 74 kg

9 - The VDF range depends on... The aircraft's speed. The condition of the ionosphere. The range of the ground / surface wave. The aircraft's altitude.

10 - What is the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere? 1 % 21 % 78 % 0.1 %

11 - Which answer states a risk factor for diabetes? Overweight Smoking Sleep deficiency Alcohol consumption

12 - Which conditions are likely for the formation of advection fog? Cold, humid air moves over a warm ocean Warm, humid air moves over a cold surface Warm, humid air cools during a cloudy night Humidity evaporates from warm, humid ground into cold air

13 - What is the lowest possible VFR flight level if a true course of 181° is selected and a variation of 3° east exists? FL 050 FL 060 FL 055 FL 065

14 - Given: QDR: 152° VAR: 5° W DEV: 5° E The QUJ equals... 332° 147° 327° 317°.

15 - The term 'True Course' (TC) is defined as... Tthe angle between magnetic north and the course line. The direction from an arbitrary point on Earth to the geographic North Pole. The angle between true north and the course line The direction from an arbitrary point on Earth to the magnetic north pole

16 - What pressure pattern can be observed during the passage of a polar front low? Rising pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, rising pressure behind the cold front Falling pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, rising pressure behind the cold front Falling pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, falling pressure behind the cold front Rising pressure in front of the warm front, rising pressure within the warm sector, falling pressure behind the cold front

17 - Which of the mentioned cockpit instruments is connected to the pitot tube? Vertical speed indicato Direct-reading compass Altimeter Airspeed indicator

18 - When using direct current, electrically driven flight instruments are marked with... "EL". "DC" "AL". "CO".

19 - With increasing altitude, the power of a carburettor engine... Remains constant. First decreases, from 5000 ft on increases Increases Decreases

20 - During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing tailwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change? Path is higher, IAS decreases Path is higher, IAS increases Path is lower, IAS decreases Path is lower, IAS increases

21 - The specified speed in the ATS flight plan equals: See annex (PFP-051) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 20

1000 kt 100 m/h. 100 km/h 100 kt.

22 - The barometric altimeter with QFE setting indicates... Height above the pressure level at airfield elevation. True altitude above MSL. Height above MSL. Height above standard pressure 1013.25 hPa

23 - Under which circumstances may a runway be considered to be contaminated? When more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep When 75 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand When more than 50 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep When more than 50 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as snow, frost, ice or sand

24 - The elevator moves an aeroplane around the... Lateral axis. Elevator axis. Longitudinal axis Vertical axis.

25 - What is a cause for the dip error on the direct-reading compass? Deviation in the cockpit Acceleration of the airplane Inclination of earth's magnetic field lines Temperature variations

26 - What does the slip indicator show? Apparent vertical Rate of turn Vertical to horizon Airplane's bank

27 - Calculated take-off mass = 1082 kg, calculated CG = 0.254 m, fuel burn = 55 l on station 0.40 m. Where is the CG situated after the landing? 24.6 cm 25.2 cm 25.4 cm 24.8 cm

28 - What is an appropriate reaction when a passenger during cruise flight suddenly feels uncomfortable? Adjust cabin temperature and prevent excessive bank Give additional oxygen and avoid low load factors Avoid conversation and choose a higher airspeed Switch on the heater blower and provide thermal blankets

29 - The temperature lapse rate with increasing height within the troposphere according ISA is... 0,65° C / 100 m 3° C / 100 m. 1° C / 100 m 0,6° C / 100 m.

30 - Wake turbulence is particularly strong... At a high aeroplane weight. When flying with high thrust. When flying with low thrust. At a low aeroplane weight.

31 - Air traffic control service is conducted by which services? TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service) ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service) FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical fixed telecommunication service)

32 - May an engine, which previously was on fire, be restarted? No, the risk of a reignition of the fire would be too high Yes, if the aircraft is flying at a safe altitude Yes, but only on the ground for the purpose of taxiing Yes, but only if the cause of the fire was a carburettor fire during engine start

33 - Wie beeinflusst die Lufttemperatur die Leistung eines Kolbenmotors? Geringere Temperatur entspricht höherer Luftdichte, dies führt zu geringerer Motorleistung Höhere Temperatur entspricht geringerer Luftdichte, dies führt zu geringerer Motorleistung Höhere Temperatur entspricht höherer Luftdichte, dies führt zu höherer Motorleistung Geringere Temperatur entspricht geringerer Luftdichte, dies führt zu höherer Motorleistung

34 - What is the meaning of the phrase "Roger"? Permission for proposed action is granted I understand your message and will comply with it I have received all of your last transmission An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is...

35 - Which phrase is used by a pilot when he wants to fly through controlled airspace? Apply Want Would like Request

36 - A flight level is a... Pressure altitude. Density altitude Altitude above ground True altitude.

37 - "Foehn" conditions usually develop with... Instability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge. Stability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge. Instability, high pressure area with calm wind. Stability, high pressure area with calm wind.

38 - Which statement is correct with regard to the short-term memory? It can store 10 (±5) items for 30 to 60 seconds It can store 7 (±2) items for 10 to 20 seconds It can store 3 (±1) items for 5 to 10 seconds It can store 5 (±2) items for 1 to 2 minutes

39 - During ignition check the ignition is switched to OFF for a short moment and subsequently back to BOTH. What happens to the RPM if the ignition system is properly grounded? The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one when switched back to BOTH The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one when switched back to BOTH

40 - During a flight, a flight plan can be filed at the... Flight Information Service (FIS). Search and Rescue Service (SAR). Next airport operator en-route. Aeronautical Information Service (AIS).

41 - Which of the following frequencies is designated for VHF voice communication? 120.50 MHz 115.15 MHz 108.80 MHz 117.30 kHz

42 - Clouds in high layers are referred to as... Nimbo-. Strato-. Alto- Cirro-

43 - The beginning of the green arc (2) indicates which airspeed? See figure (PFP-008) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 8

VS1: Stall speed with flaps up VS0: Stall speed in landing configuration VFE: Maximum flap extended speed VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations

44 - Bernoulli's equation for frictionless, incompressible gases states that... Static pressure = total pressure + dynamic pressure Total pressure = dynamic pressure - static pressure Dynamic pressure = total pressure + static pressure. Total pressure = dynamic pressure + static pressure.

45 - The barometric altimeter with QNH setting indicates... Height above standard pressure 1013.25 hPa Height above the pressure level at airfield elevation True altitude above MSL. Height above MSL.

46 - Which of the following options does NOT stimulate motion sickness (disorientation)? Head movements during turns Flying under the influence of alcohol Non-accelerated straight and level flight Turbulence in level flight

47 - During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be... 1030.25 hPa. 1013.25 hPa. Local QFE. Local QNH.

48 - What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP? Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods

49 - What cloud type does the picture show? See figure (MET-002). Siehe Anlage 2

Stratus Cumulus Altus Cirrus

50 - Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by... Little sleep. Alcohol Smoking. Unhealthy food.

51 - An acceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of... A descent. A climb. An inverted flight. A bank.

52 - Which of the following conditions are most favourable for ice accretion? Temperatures between 0° C and -12° C, presence of supercooled water droplets (clouds) Temperaturs below 0° C, strong wind, sky clear of clouds Temperatures between +10° C and -30° C, presence of hail (clouds) Temperatures between -20° C and -40° C, presence of ice crystals (Ci clouds)

53 - Air consists of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases. What is the approximate percentage of other gases? 0.1 % 78 % 1 % 21 %

54 - A deceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of... A climb. A descent. A bank. An inverted flight.

55 - Which of the listed radiotelephony messages has a higher priority than a flight safety message? Communication related to direction finding Flight regularity message Meteorological message Aircraft position report message

56 - Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure? Approval has been granted before There are other aircraft in the aerodrome circuit It ist the aerodrome of departure It is the destination aerodrome

57 - Which type of ice forms by very small water droplets and ice crystals hitting the front surfaces of an aircraft? Clear ice Mixed ice Hoar frost Rime ice

58 - Given: True course: 255°. TAS: 100 kt. Wind: 200°/10 kt. The true heading equals... 245° 275°. 265° 250°.

59 - Which phenomenon may be expected at point 2 of the microburst? See figure (OPR-001) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 1

Constant rate of descent Decrease of descent rate Increase of airspeed Decrease of climb rate

60 - What is the reason for static dischargers on aircraft? To ensure grounding during refueling To discharge static charging during flight To eliminate electrical interferences during intensive radio traffic To improve the quality of radio transmission in high altitudes

61 - Which parts of an aircraft mainly affect the generation of induced drag? The front part of the fuselage. The wing tips The lower part of the gear. The outer part of the ailerons

62 - The upper limit of LO R 16 equals... See annex (PFP-056) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 15

FL150. 1 500 m MSL. 1 500 ft MSL. 1.500 ft GND.

63 - What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground? Cleared to taxi Return to starting point Land at this airport and proceed to the apron Cleared for take-off

64 - What does the abbreviation "H24" stand for? Sunrise to sunset 24 h service No specific opening times Sunset to sunrise

65 - What is the meaning of the illustrated ground signal as shown in the signal area of an aerodrome? See figure (ALW-012) Siehe Anlage 4

Caution, manoeuvring area is poor Prohibition on landing for a longer period After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right Ground movement restricted to hard surfaces

66 - On what frequency shall a blind transmission be made? On the appropriate FIS frequency On a radar frequency of the lower airspace On the current frequency On a tower frequency

67 - What is the meaning of the phrase "Correction"? Permission for proposed action is granted An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is... I have received all of your last transmission I understand your message and will comply with it

68 - What is the purpose of the tank ventilation? To prevent underpressure caused by fuel consumption To prevent water disposal during parking To distribute the fuel from one tank segment to the other during flight To prevent fuel spillage during refueling on the filler plug

69 - How do dew point and relative humidity change with decreasing temperature? Dew point remains constant, relative humidity decreases Dew point decreases, relative humidity increases Dew point increases, relative humidity decreases Dew point remains constant, relative humidity increases

70 - The conversion factor from kilogram [kg] into pounds [lb] is... Kg x 2 = lb. Kg x 2.205 = lb. Kg / 2.205 = lb. Kg x 0.454 = lb

71 - Visual illusions are mostly caused by... Rapid eye movements. Misinterpretation of the brain. Colour blindness. Binocular vision.

72 - What are the primary and the secondary effects of a rudder input to the left? Primary: yaw to the left Secondary: roll to the right Primary: yaw to the left Secondary: roll to the left Primary: yaw to the right Secondary: roll to the left Primary: yaw to the right Secondary: roll to the right

73 - Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace "E"? IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic

74 - Which statement describes a situation of static stability? An aircraft distorted by external impact will tend to an even more deflected position An aircraft distorted by external impact will return to the original position An aircraft distorted by external impact can return to its original position by rudder input An aircraft distorted by external impact will maintain the deflected position

75 - The bank angle of a 2-minutes circle depends on the... CAS IAS Ground speed TAS

76 - Which validity does the "Certificate of Airworthiness" have? 6 months 12 years Unlimited 12 months

77 - What information can be found in the ATIS, but not in a METAR? Information about current weather, for example types of precipitation Operational information such as runway in use and transition level Information about mean wind speeds, maximum speeds in gusts if applicable Approach information, such as ground visibility and cloud base

78 - At which airspeed do you climb to flight level (FL) 75 after a departure from an airfield which is located at a pressure altitude of 3000 ft with an initial mass of 3000 lbs? OAT at airfield: 25° C OAT in FL 75: 0° C See annex (PFP-023) (1,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 14

90 kt 120 kt 110 kt 100 kt

79 - Which is the purpose of the altimeter subscale? To set the reference level for the altitude decoder of the transponder To adjust the altimeter reading for non-standard temperature To reference the altimeter reading to a predetermined level such as mean sea level, aerodrome level or pressure level 1013.25 hPa To correct the altimeter reading for system errors

80 - Which navigation facility may be used for broadcasting the ATIS? GPS DME NDB VOR

81 - Which of the following qualities are influenced by stress? 1. Attention 2. Concentration 3. Responsiveness 4. Memory 2, 4 1 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3

82 - The laminar boundary layer on the aerofoil is located between... The transition point and the separation point. The stagnation point and the transition point. The transition point and the center of pressure The stagnation point and the center of pressure

83 - What weather phenomenon designated by "2" has to be expected on the lee side during "Foehn" conditions? See figure (MET-001). Siehe Anlage 1

Altocumulus Castellanus Nimbostratus Cumulonimbus Altocumulus lenticularis

84 - Which weather phenomenon is typically associated with wind shear? Fog Invernal warm front. Thunderstorms Stable high pressure areas.

85 - What does the abbreviation "QUJ" stand for? True bearing from the station True bearing to the station Magnetic bearing to the station Magnetic bearing from the station

86 - What is the best combination of traits with respect to the individual attitude and behaviour for a pilot? Introverted - unstable Introverted - stable Extroverted - unstable Extroverted - stable

87 - The density of AVGAS 100LL at 15° C is... 0.68 kg/l. 1.0 kg/l. 0.82 kg/l. 0.72 kg/l

88 - The speed VFE is defined as... Stalling or minimum steady flight speed with the flaps retracted. Stalling or minimum steady flight speed with the flaps retracted. Stalling or minimum steady flight speed with the flaps extended. Maximum landing gear extended speed

89 - Which section of the flight manual describes the basic empty mass of an aircraft? Normal procedures Limitations Performance Weight and balance

90 - What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during winter? Changing weather with passing of frontal lines Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog Squall lines and thunderstorms

91 - The "swiss cheese model" can be used to explain the... Error chain. Procedure for an emergency landing. Optimal problem solution. State of readiness of a pilot.

92 - What is a "PAPI" (Precision Approach Path Indicator)? A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a tower controller acquire and maintain the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport An instrumental aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct departure track when departing from an aerodrome or an airport

93 - Which Q-code is used for the true bearing from the station? QDR QUJ QDM QTE

94 - Which area is suitable for an off-field landing? Harvested cornfield Glade with long dry grass Plowed field Sports area in a village

95 - How many satellites are necessary for a precise and verified three-dimensional determination of the position? Two Three Five Four

96 - Times are transmitted as... UTC Standard time. Local time. Time zone time

97 - What is the gas composition of "air"? Oxygen 21 % Water vapour 78 % Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 % Oxygen 78 % Water vapour 21 % Nitrogen 1 % Nitrogen 21 % Oxygen 78 % Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 % Oxygen 21 % Nitrogen 78 % Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %

98 - Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks. Which one has to divert? The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority Both have to divert to the right The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority Both have to divert to the left

99 - An aircraft is following a true course (TC) of 040° at a constant true airspeed (TAS) of 180 kt. The wind vector is 350°/30 kt. The wind correction angle (WCA) equals... +5° + 11° - 7° - 9°

100 - When transmitter and receiver are moving away from each other... The perceived frequency increases The perceived frequency decreases. The frequency varies, but the wavelength remains constant The perceived frequency equals the transmitted frequency.

101 - Non-directional beacons (NDBs) transmit within which frequency band? Very low frequency (VLF) and low frequency (LF) Low frequency (LF) and medium frequency (MF) High frequency (HF) Very high frequency (VHF)

102 - Two aircraft of the same type, same gross weight and same flap configuration fly with different speeds and altitude. Which aircraft will cause more wake turbulence? The aircraft flying at a higher altitude The aircraft flying at a lower altitude The aircraft flying at higher speed. The aircraft flying at lower speed.

103 - What is the diffeence between spin and spiral dive? Spin: stall at outer wing, speed constant; Spiral dive: airflow at both wings, speed increasing rapidly Spin: stall at inner wing, speed constant; Spiral dive: airflow at both wings, speed increasing rapidly Spin: stall at outer wing, speed increasing rapidly; Spiral dive: airflow at both wings, speed constant Spin: stall at inner wing, speed increasing rapidly; Spiral dive: airflow at both wings, speed constant

104 - What is the function of the blood platelets (thrombocytes)? Immune defense Blood coagulation Blood sugar regulation Oxygen transport

105 - At what rate does the temperature change with increasing height according to ISA (ICAO Standard Atmosphere) within the troposphere? Decreases by 2° C / 1000 ft Increases by 2° C / 1000 ft Decreases by 2° C / 100 m Increases by 2° C / 100 m

106 - Exceeding the maximum allowed aircraft mass is... Not permissible and essentially dangerous Only relevant if the excess is more than 10 % Compensated by the pilot's control inputs Exceptionally permissible to avoid delays.

107 - An aircraft is following a true course (TC) of 220° at a constant TAS of 220 kt. The wind vector is 270°/50 kt. The ground speed (GS) equals... 170 kt 185 kt. 255 kt. 135 kt.

108 - A precautionary landing is a landing... Conducted without power from the engine. Conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land. Conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety. Conducted with the flaps retracted.

109 - Weather phenomena are most common to be found in which atmospheric layer? Stratosphere Tropopause Thermosphere Troposphere

110 - What factor may affect the top of cumulus clouds? Relative humidity The spread The presence of an inversion layer The absolute humidity

111 - A frequency of 119.500 MHz is correctly transmitted as... One one niner tousand decimal five zero. One one niner decimal five One one niner decimal five zero. One one niner decimal five zero zero.

112 - During an unaccelerated flight... Drag equals lift and thrust equals gravity. Thrust equals the sum of drag and gravity. Thrust equals lift and drag equals gravity. Thrust equals drag and lift equals gravity.

113 - What is the difference between a locator beacon and a non-directional beacon (NDB)? Locator beacons transmit more precisely Locator beacons have a higher range than NDBs Locator beacons transmit on request only Locator beacons have a lower range than NDBs

114 - What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "Next report PAH"? Positive Roger Report PAH Wilco

115 - What is the unit for electrical power? Ampere Ohm Watt Volt

116 - What temperatures are most dangerous with respect to airframe icing? =+5° to -10° C 0° to -12° C -20° to -40° C =+20° to -5° C

117 - What is the correct term for the system which, among others, controls breathing, digestion, and heart frequency? Critical nervous system Autonomic nervous system Automatical nervous system Compliant nervous system

118 - What is the meaning of the red range on the airspeed indicator? Speed which must not be exceeded within bumpy air Speed which must not be exceeded with flaps extended Speed which must not be exceeded regardless of circumstances Speed which must not be exceeded in turns with more than 45° bank

119 - A technical fault requires an emergency off-field landing. Which steps, with respect to the pilot's operating handbook, are necessary? Inform air traffic control and request technical support, check the pilot's operating handbook for a reference on the matter and execute an emergency landing Reduce speed and configure the aircraft for landing in an attempt to gain time, declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure and execute an emergency landing. Locate a suitable landing area, plan the approach, complete the applicable emergency procedure, declare an emergency, start and concentrate on the approach in due time. Declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure, cover as much distance towards the airport as possible to be closer to the rescue forces.

120 - Wake turbulence is caused by... Wind shear at the wingtip of an aerofoil. Jet blast behind a turbine engine Turbulence at the downwind side of a mountain range Pressure compensation at the wingtip of an aerofoil.

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PPL(A) English - Private Pilot License (Aircraft) Simulazione d'esame

120 domande in 120 minuti ppl-en