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ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license Simulazione d'esame

120 domande in 120 minuti atpl

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1 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Figures 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4 Given: Distance C - D: 540 NMCruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature Deviation from ISA: +20°C Headwind component: 50 ktGross mass at C: 60 000 kgThe fuel required from C to D is:
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2 - Fastair 345 is instructed to contact Stephenville RADAR on channel 132.010 MHz. How would Fastair 345 advise RADAR that it is not 8.33 KHz equipped?
3 - Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
4 - The Dry Operating Mass includes:
5 - An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6850 lbs. What is the stall speed when the weight is 5000 lbs?
6 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for an IR shall hold a PPL including a night qualification or CPL and shall have completed at least 50 hours:
7 - When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined as the sum of the:
8 - The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:
9 - The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
10 - The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
11 - On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is
12 - The data supplied by a radio altimeter:
13 - If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is:
14 - When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will:
15 - An aircraft flies at a TAS of 380 kt. It flies from A to B and back to
16 - What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?
17 - A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
18 - The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
19 - H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
20 - According to PART-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are:
21 - A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
22 - The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:
23 - The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
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24 - What does the term 'air-ground communication' mean?
25 - Refer to Student Pilot Route Manual Amsterdam, Schipol (Plate 10- 3):Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L?
26 - Motivation is a quality which is often considered vital in the pilot's work to maintain safety.
27 - What does the term 'Expected Approach Time' mean:
28 - A single action actuator:
29 - Select the air traffic service in charge of control of local traffic, take-offs and landings at an airport.
30 - Given:Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa.What is the approximate airport pressure altitude? (Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
31 - Pressure altitude is obtained by:
32 - Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation:
33 - An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC.The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and:
34 - AIPWhich part of the AIP contains a list with 'Location Indicators'?
35 - The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of:1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage 2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltage The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
36 - To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong?
37 - On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:
38 - In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by:
39 - High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of:
40 - Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation ?
41 - Which code shall be used on Mode 'A' to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
42 - When the term 'CAVOK' is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:
43 - With an true airspeed of 194 KT and a vertical speed of 1000 fpm, the climb gradient is about:
44 - Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 ktThe time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
45 - A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:
46 - Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by:
47 - What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate ?
48 - How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ?
49 - Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the takeoff distance available?
50 - Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct:
51 - Refer to CAP697 Section 4 - MRJT1 Page 75 Figure 4.7.2 Area of Operation - Diversion Distance One Engine InoperativeUsing the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of:
52 - An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the static air temperature decreases, the Mach number:
53 - A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered for more than:
54 - Refer to JAR Student Pilot Route Manual, Paris, Charles-de-Gaulle (Plate 20- 2): The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is:
55 - Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc?
56 - Item 9 of the ATC flight plan includes 'NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT'. In this case 'NUMBER' means:
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57 - When a wing bends upwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects:
58 - Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
59 - Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following data: Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 mDistance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m Length of MAC: 8 m
60 - How many hours in advance of EOBT should a ATC flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
61 - The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by:
62 - An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
63 - In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles required in an AC generator running at 6.000 RPM is:
64 - How many centimetres are equivalent to 36,25 inches?
65 - When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to:
66 - For the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:
67 - When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for:
68 - Arrival and Approach segments, GeneralWhat are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure?
69 - Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing:
70 - Position "Elephant Point" is situated at (58°00'N, 135°30'W). Standard time for this location is listed in the Air Almanac as UTC -8. If sunset occurs at 00:57 UTC on 21st January, what is the time of sunset in LMT?
71 - Select the correct phoenetic letter code for HB-FRO:
72 - What does the abbreviation 'IMC' mean?
73 - Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
74 - An air data computer1. supplies the ground speed and the drift (angle)2. determines the total temperature and the true altitude3. receives the static pressure and the total pressure4. supplies the true airspeed to the inertial unit5. determines the Mach number, the outside (static) air temperature The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
75 - Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend
76 - What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m?
77 - The Central Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer essentially consists of:1. an Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)2. a control and timing unit3. registersThe combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
78 - What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
79 - The most dangerous form of airframe icing is
80 - On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:
81 - Approach procedures - final approach segmentIn a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
82 - The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
83 - According to EASA OPS 1 and assuming the following circumstances: for a category A airplane and aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information. An acceptable alternate aerodrome is available, the minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off:
84 - Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: 'Consider that transmission as not sent':
85 - Which is the audible range to human hearing?
86 - An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if:
87 - Which is the most likely of the following scenarios which might lead to a conflict between status and role?
88 - What does the word 'contact' mean?
89 - Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
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90 - A cumulonimbus cloud at mid-latitudes in summer contains
91 - Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5270 kg- obstacle limit: 4630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5000 kg Considering a take-off with flaps at:
92 - Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the Greenwich meridian.An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a distance of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then follows a grid track of 154° for a distance of 300 NM. Its position is now approximately:
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93 - The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in cigarettes is:
94 - In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because:
95 - An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 6500 FT from A (600 FT/AMSL - QNH 1012 hPa) to B (930 FT/AMSL - QNH 977 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 1012 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B will be
96 - During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
97 - What does QTE mean?
98 - Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately?
99 - A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of thatflight to Limoges.
100 - When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
101 - Considering the sector from 10°N to Nairobi of the route indicated, during January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be
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102 - The wake turbulence:
103 - A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:
104 - The "Break Point" is that point after which, if stress continues to rise,
105 - The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
106 - A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning purposes:
107 - The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always:
108 - Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? 1) There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged. 2) Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock.
109 - Regarding the oxygen system of a CS 25 aeroplane:
110 - The ventilation system in a fuel tank:
111 - Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
112 - An aeroplane exhibits static longitudinal stability, if, when the angle of attack changes:
113 - Before Transmitting the pilot should:
114 - A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
115 - In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:
116 - An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to:
117 - Refer to CAP 696 Fig. 4.11:At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
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118 - Which of the following ( 1) aerofoils and ( 2) angles of attack will produce the lowest Mcrit values?
119 - When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of
120 - According to PART-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including
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